| Daryl |
05-08-2006 08:36 AM |
I'm always trying to find something wrong (I don't like it either). And I sense something wrong with these conclusions. First, I find it odd that between the few of us on this thread, that we've hit millions of golf balls and hadn't concluded that a half swing or acquired motion swing (whatever) travels almost the same distance as a total motion swing (is my computer broke?). Second, the club head travel distance between acquired motion and total motion can be almost double in some players. Given this increase in acceleration time, I would think that a total motion stroke would travel much farther. On the other hand, I saw VJ.'s swings and MPH results with my own eyes and a 4 iron acquired motion is equivalent to a Total motion 5 iron.
So, maybe we are "jumping to conclusions". I mean that there is other information that we aren't considering. First, The difference between a 4 iron an a 5 iron may be 10-12 yards with a full swing. I wasn't out in the range with a measuring tape so I don't know how far each ball traveled. So we don't have a control sampling. We didn't take 50 full swings with both clubs and 50 acquired motion swings with each club and measure the results. The test I saw compared the club head speed between a 4 and 5 iron using acquired and total motion respectively. Secondly, did VJ "put more into" the acquired motion than the total motion? I don't know. Third, maybe "our" collective total motion club head travel distance is not as much as double our acquired motion travel distance.
I would agree that when I think of an acquired motion vs. total motion, that the ball travel distance should be greater than the nearly and only 1% difference in club head speed. But, I've been wrong many times. I do think that there is something to this. I'm just not sure exactly what. I know that when faced with a critical distance shot I'm more comfortable with a full swing because I pretty well know my clubs distances. Maybe I should get to know their Acquired motion distances too?
|